Nothing. If you remember our conversation, it had nothing to do with 1941, either. It was about bias in the polls. I must have missed where you said that the bias was for 1941 and 1941 alone because otherwise the above comment makes no sense at all.
Well my point was that the AP poll was biased in it's early days. It's gotten better as time has gone on. Way better today than back in 41 for example.
So the bias was completely gone in 1942 when Alabama was voted in the final top 10 with 3 losses? Help me out here, you've not stated who was biased against what or outside of 1941, even when. Northwestern getting some top 10 votes with 3 losses in 1941 was apparently a sign of bias, but Alabama actually finishing in the top 10 with 3 losses in 1942 apparently means the bias had ended. I guess. Give me a hint.
And what exactly is it that you think I believe? Since I've not stated it, I wonder how you feel you can comment on it. I'm asking you for concrete reasons for what you believe and all you are giving me is gut feelings or things that aren't all that strange. You've not offered an ounce of evidence that could be chalked up to biased, unless you are biased to that opinion in the first place.
Believe me, if you give me evidence of bias, I will sweep it up. I've been looking for it for years and every time someone states there is bias, I get the same sort of non-proof you're offering me. The only thing people ever say is that since they disagree with the results, it must be biased. That's not good enough for me.
In 1942, who was going to complain about Alabama being #10 with 3 losses? Texas @ #11 with 2 losses? That's hardly very far off.
#9 Michigan, 7-3
#10 Alabama, 7-3
#11 Texas, 8-2
There was no #20 team with a better record.
How is that even close to being like Alabama(8-2) being #20 while 5-3 Northwestern is #11?
Really?
If you just wanna go "la-la-la-la can't hear you", then what is the point?
So, Alabama finishing behind a Washington State team in 1941 with a worse record = bias. Alabama finishing in front of a Washington State team and an UCLA team in 1942 with the same record = non-bias? Finishing in front of a Penn State team in 1942 with a better record means that there's a bias somewhere.
How many posts into this conversation and you STILL haven't stated what the bias is.
I'm sorry, you did state that the polls were biased for the coasts. That's fair.
Why are the biased to the coasts? What do you have to support that? How does Northwestern fit into that?
And while were at it, where's the proof that the coasts didn't play better football, if they did indeed get ranked higher. I could state that because 3 SEC teams finished in the top 5 of the polls in 2013, that means the polls were biased to the SEC. However, that ignores that ranking these teams that high was probably appropriate. That teams got treated better is not proof that they should not have been treated better.
Washington State was 6-1-2 in 1942.
UCLA was 5-3 in 1942
Penn St was 6-1-1
How are these better records than 7-3?
Furthermore, I've stated over and over that there was a bias towards the coastal schools where the majority of writers were located.
Chicago is where many sports writers and thus voters were from. Not exactly "coast", but still pretty much east coast in terms of writers.
You mean like how Alabama won so many Rose Bowls that made it where only (now) Big10 and Pac schools could play in it after 1946?
You are aware that the southern teams weren't given any respect at all until 1926 when Alabama won the Rose Bowl?
And as for coastal bias. We'll look at 1942. Stanford comes in ranked #12 with a 6-4 record. All 4 losses were to teams ranked below them and they never beat a ranked team.